Fcps part 1
paper -1
Medicine & Allied
25 may 2010
recalled by dr latifaziz





Q-1: A 20 years old male has dyspnoea on lying down .the structure most likely to cause this is
A. enlarged isthmus of thyroid
B. multinodular goiter
C. puberty goiter
D. retrosternal goiter
E. solitary nodule goiter

Q-2: A 50 years old man has been diagnosed to have tuberculosis pleural effusion .the safest site of pleural fluid aspiration is:

A: lower border of the upper rib in mid-axillary line
B: lower border of the upper rib in mid clavicular line
C: middle of intercostals space in mid clavicular line
D: middle of the intercostal space in anterior axillary line
E: upper border of the lower rib with maximum area of dullness

Q-3: In cell division chromosomes begins to align at equator in
A: anaphase
B: metaphase
C: late interphase
D: early interphase
E: prophase

Q-4: Cephalic vein

A: begins in the region of anatomical snuff box
B: at the elbow is deep to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm
C: ends bye joining the brachial vein
D: is medial to the biceps brachii in the upper limb
E: has no valve

Q-5: To perform lumber in an adult, the needle is introduced between the spinous processes of:
A; L4 & 5
B: L2 & 3
C; S1 & L2
D: T12 & L1
E: S3 & L4

Q-6: Cauda equina is made of the the:
A: spinal nerves of s1-3
B: anterior rami of spinal nerves L1 to cocc1
C: posterior rami of spinal nerves L1 to cocc 1
D: sinal nerves of L1-5
E: anterior & posterior nerve root of the spinal nerves below the first lumber segment of spinal cord.

Q-7: Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of
A: Anti diuretic hormone
B: insulin
C: oxytocin
D: prolactin
E: thyroid hormone

Q-8: Volume of the air that can be forcibly expired after a maximal inspiration is:
A: functional residual capacity
B: residual volume
C: vital capacity
D: inspiratory capacity
E: Total lung capacity

Q-9: The long term use of estrogen containing oral contraceptive in female increases the risk of:
A: breast cancer
B: osteomalacia
C: osteoporosis
D: thrombo-embolism
E: vaginal cancer

Q-10: The diagnostic feature of the plasmodium falciparum infection is:
A: black water fever
B: disseminated intravascular coagulation
C: hemolytic anemia
D: hypoglycemia
E: nephrotic syndrome

Q-11: In omentum the most common type of the necrosis is:
Acaseous necrosis
B: coagulative necrosis
C: fat necrosis
D: gangrenous necrosis
E: liquefactive necrosis

Q-12: A 15 years old boy complained of loss of appetite, vomiting & high colored urine. Examination revealed yellow coloration of sclera .investigation of choice is:
A: Alkaline phosphatase estimation
B: hepatitis A & B
C: liver biopsy
D: bilirubin & ALT estimation
E: serum & urinary bilirubin

Q-13: The specimen to identify the organ treponema pallidum of the primary syphilis can be obtained from the site of:
A: Genital sore
B: lymph node
C: mouth
D: placenta
E: skin

Q-14: Regarding Growth:
A: Atrophy is a decrease in the size of or number of cells in tissues
B: hypoplasia is a recognized precursor of neoplasia
C: in hyperplasia there is an abnormal nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio
D: repair is a process where by lost tissue is replaced by tissue of same type
E squamous metaplasia occurs only in squamous epithelium

Q-15: Alleles are
A: broken off gene fragments
B: dominant genes
C: non-identical genes at the same locus
D: regulatory gene products
E structural gene products

Q-16: Most common side effect of chlorpromazine
A: polyuria
B: Dystonic reaction
C: Elation
D: weight gain
E: Depression

Q-17: The epitheloid cell of granulomatous inflammation is derived from.
A: Basophils
B: CD4+ lymphocytes
C: langerhan cells
D: monocytes-macrophage
E: plasma cells

Q-18: Most of carcinomas are associated with increase in following intermediate filaments:
A: Neuro filament
B: keratin
C: vimentin
D: desmin
E: lamin



Q-19: Barr body is mainly diagnostic feature of?
A: klinefelter syndrome
B: turner syndrome
C: Adrogenital syndrome
D: true hermaphrodite
E: Edward syndrome


Q-21: A middle aged woman has a 10 day history of the fever & continuous chest pain which worsens on lying down .what structure is involved.
A: peritoneum
B: pleura
C: endocardium
D: pericardium
E: myocardium

Q-22: feature of turner syndrome is:
A: Gyneacomastia
B: secondary Amenorrhea
C: low set ears
D: hypotension
E: short stature

Q-23: Infective endocarditis is caused by
A: streptococcus agalactiae
B: staphylococcus aureus
C: streptococcus pneumoniae
D: streptococcus pyogens
E: streptococcus viridians

Q-24: least likely cause of cardiogenic shock
A: Hemopericardium
B: Hypovolemia
C: Cardiac tamponade
D: Pulmonary Embolism
E: Constrictive pericarditis




Q-25: Water transport across the cell membrane?
A: passive Diffusion
B: is via pore mediated
C: is through cell membrane matrix
D: Active transport
E: pinocytosis

Q-26: Cholinergic stimulation causes
A: Atrial Contractility
B: Ciliary muscle contraction
C: vas-deference relaxation
D: Detrusor muscle relaxation
E: Ejaculation

Q-27: Withdrawal reflex receptor involved is.
A: Muscle spindle
B: Golgi Tendon
C: Pacinian corpuscle
D: Nociceptor
E: Meissner corpuscle

Q-28: Regarding Pulmonary Hamartoma, Most Unlikely is
A: usually occurs in less than 40 years of Age
B: formed from foci of hyaline cartilage
C: Rarely more than 4 cm
D: may contain ectopic Adrenal Tissue
E: commonly present as “COIN LESION” on chest x-ray

Q-29: Set point Temperature is regulated by.
A: Anterior Hypothalamus
B; Septal nucleus
C: Posterior Hypothalamus
D: Sweat Glands
E: skin

Q-30: Tumor that doesn’t metastasize to Bone is.
A: Breast Cell carcinoma
B: Prostate cancer
C: liver cell carcinoma
D: Thyroid cancer
E: lung cancer





Q-31: Micturition control center is present in
A: Cerebral cortex
B: S2, 3, 4
C: medulla
D: S1, 2
E Midbrain

Q-32: Square root of variance is
A: Co-efficient of variance
B: Median
C: Mode
D: Mean
E: Standard deviation

Q-33: Mean in large Proportion sampling
A: Mean shows greater value than Median
B: When sample is large then Mean also increases
C: Mean is equal to Median
D: Mean.Mode.Median are equal
E; Mean is less than median

Q-34: Stretch Reflex
A: Inverse stretch reflex is mediated by muscle spindle
B: Maintain muscle tone
C: Bisynaptic
D: Active muscle contraction stimulates group 1b fibers

Q-35: superior thyroid Gland
A: highly variable in position
B: lies at mid of posterior surface of thyroid gland at level of first tracheal ring
C: usually within the pretacheal fascial sheath at lower lobe
D: pretracheal fascia covers superficially
E: supplied by superior thyroid artery

Q-36: Regarding Neonate, This is Most Appropriates.
A: have smaller liver than adult
B: upper limb is less developed
C: lower limb is more developed
D; Has C shaped vertebral Column
E; Transverse section of thorax is oval




Q-37: Child with permanent disability & admitted in hospital, The most common reaction of his parents would be.
A: Anxiety
B: Denial
C: Repression
D: Depression
E: Regression

Q-38: Regarding neural Tube
A: Derivative of Notochord
B: give rise CNS
C: give rise PNS
D: give meninges & Schwann cells
E: is responsible for formation of primitive streak

Q-39; Doctor Want to improve the vitamin content of diet, so what he will add to Diet
A: Meat
B: Egg
C: Milk
D: margarine
E: More vegetables

Q-40: Best indicator of iron status in the body:
A: serum iron
B: serum ferritin
C: TIBC
D: Transferin saturation
E Dietary iron

Q-41: Deep cervical fascia in the neck spilt to enclose All of following except:
A: Submandibular gland
B: parotid gland
C: sublingual gland
D: thyroid gland
E: Trachea

Q-42: Following the Resection Anterior pituitary, this leads to Atrophy of
A: Adrenal medulla
B: Zona Glomerulosa
C: Zona Fasciculata
D: Para follicular C cells
E: Parathyroid gland




Q-43: Most common Predisposing factor for malignant melanoma
A: family history of breast cancer
B: Negros
C: nevocellula nevus
D: Dysplastic nevus syndrome
E: young Age

Q-44: Regarding vitamin D metabolism
A: 25-hydroxlation in kidney & 1- hydroxylation in liver
B: 1-hydroxylation occurs prior to 25 hydroxylation
C: 25-hydroxlation in kidney & 1-hydroxlation in kidney
D:1-hydroxlation in liver & 25- hydroxylation in liver
E: 25-hydroxylation in liver & 1-hydroxylation in liver

Q-45: Most lethal premalignant oral condition is
A: leukoplakia
B: Erythroplakia
C: Apthous ulcer
D: lichen planus
E; Kerato acnthoma

Q-46: Fluid passing from proximal convoluted tubule to loop of henle has higher concentration than plasma
A; contain more Na+ than plasma
B: osmolarity
C: contain more Glucose than plasma
D; More HCO3 than plasma
E: urea

Q-47: woman with history of loss of vision in Both temporal field plus prolactinoma & Amenorrhea. Lesion is located at.
A: optic tract
B: lateral Geniculate body
C: temporal lobe
D: optic radiation
E: Superior part of optic chiasma

Q-48: Excretion of Potassium will decrease if
A: High K+ in Diet
B: Hyperaldosteronism
C: Decreased absorption of NACL
D: increase Absorption of organic acid
E: Decrease Absorption of Na+ in collecting duct



Q-49: Most Specific Feature of malignancy
A: Atypia
B: Pleomorphisim
C: Invasion
D: Increase nuclear cytoplasmic ratio
E: hyperplasia

Q-50: Best Index of protein utilization in body is
A: Blood carbon
B: blood urea
C: urea & creatinine
D: urinary nitrogen content
E: Blood Ammonia

Q-51: Regarding smooth muscle fiber.
A: branched
B: innervated by neuromuscular nerve
C: mononucleated
D: striated
E: Multinucleated

Q-52: patient stands from supine position, which physiologic change will occur
A: Increase cardiac out
B: Decrease TPR
C: Increase preload
D: increase stroke volume
E: Increase heart rate

Q-53: Regarding stroke volume
A: Determinant of cardiac output
B: Associated with heart rate
C:
D:
E:
Q-54: Systemic filling pressure determines
A: Mean systemic arterial pressure
B: cardiac output
C: stroke volume
D: Right Atrial pressure
E Venous return

Q-55: Fastest conducting fibers of heart is
A: AV node
B: Atria
C: Av bundle
D: Purkinje fibers
E; SA node

Q-56: Regarding cardiac output
A: is measure of stroke volume only
B: Right & left ventricle contract simultaneously
C: increases in standing position
D: may be measured by oximeter
E: may be measured by fick’s principle

Q-57: Cardiac cycle
A: v-wave occurs due to Atrial contraction
B: Diastole is longer than systole normally
C: a wave is due to ventricular systole
D: Pressure increases in isovolumetric relaxation
Q-58: Atrial systole

A; C wave in jvp
B: PR interval on ECG
C: Responsible for 50% of ventricular filling
D: corresponds with rapid ventricular filling
E: Thired heart sound

Q-59: Aldosterone causes Absorption of
A: K+
B: HCO3
C: Na+
D: Na+ & cl
E; H+

Q-60: cell Bodies of Spinothalamic tract lies in
A: Thalamus
B: Medulla
C: Spinal cord
D: Dorsal Root Ganglion
E: somatosensory cortex

Q-61: Regarding Cerebellum
A: has Afferent Input from motor cortex
B: Has Afferent input from Muscle proprioception
C: Has Afferent input from vestibular nuclei
D: is essential for fine co-ordinated Movement
E: Modifies spinal cord motor output






Q-62: Regarding Capillary Hydrostatic pressure
A: Increased by constriction of Afferent arteriole
B: Increased by constriction of Efferent Arteriole
C: Decreased by increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D: Increased by Increased Plasma protein concentration
E: increased by obstruction of ureter

Q-63: Regarding Neuromuscular Junction
A: Atropine Block the receptor at N.M junction
B: nicotinic receptor is blocked by Tubocurarine
C: pilocarpine Act on Nicotinic receptor
D:
E:

Q-64: Major Blood Buffer is
A: Protein
B: Phosphate
C: HCO3
D: Hemoglobulin
E: Anions

Q-65: Resolving power of lens is defined as
A Increasing Ability to focus on objects
B: is to magnify the image
C: Refraction power
D: increasing diffraction of two images


Q-66: Effects of high Altitude include
A: decreased Erythropoietin
B: increased po2
C: decreased 2.3 BPG
D; increased Alveolar ventilation
E: increased Co2

Q-67: Squamous Metaplasia occurs in
A: vagina
B: Barrette Esophagus
C: cervix
D: uterus
E: Stomach





Q-68: Miscelle formation is necessary for Absorbtion of
A: vitamin B complex
B: protein
C: Long chain fatty Acid
D: Mineral
E: carbohydrate

Q-69; To save the Drug from First pass Effect, which Route will be safe.
A: Intramuscular
B: Intra rectal
C: Oral route
D: slow release oral suspension
E: Rapid release oral suspension

Q-70: Most characteristic Feature of shock
A: cerebral Edema
B: Tachycardia
C: hypotension
D: tissue Hypoxia
E: vasodilatation

Q-71: regarding PCWP
A: indirectly measure of Right Atrial pressure
B: indirectly measure of Left Atrial pressure
C: Wedge shaped catheter is used in Right Atria
D: is > 15mmhg in Tricuspid stenosis
E: is measure of pressure in superior vena cava

Q-72: Most important test for Prenatal Diagnosis.
A: ultrasound
B: Amniocentesis
C: chorionic villus sampling
D: cordocentesis
E cordocentesis

Q-73: Left Renal vein
A: crosses posterior to Aorta
B: lies posterior to Left renal Artery
C; Crosses Anterior to Aorta
D: Posterior to inferior vena cava
E: Anterior left renal Artery





Q-74: Nissel substance is primarily composed of:
A: Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
B: Granular Endoplasmic reticulum
C: Microfilaments
D: Microtubules
E: Protein

Q-75: Regarding Circumduction
A: occurs at ball & socket joint only
B: Flexion, Extension, Abduction, Adduction
C: Medial rotation & lateral rotaton, abduction & Adduction
D: medial & lateral rotation, Flexion & Extension
E: Uniaxial movement

Q-76: External Jugular vein
A: Formed by union of post: division of Retromandibular vein & Anterior Auricular vein
B: Formed anterior to sternocleidomastoid muscle behind the Angle of Mandible
C: have no tributaries
D: Pierces deep fascia
E: drains into Axillary vein

Q-77: Regarding Bronchopulmonary segment
A: is functional unit of lung
B; contain pulmonary Artery & vein at center
C: contain pulmonary Artery & vein at periphery
D: supplied by terminal Bronchioles
E:

Q-78: A 30 years old female patient with vaginal discharge & low back ache, Pap smear shows squamous metaplasia, which Agent is responsible:
A: Herpes simplex virus-1
B: HPV
C: HSV-2
D: herpes zoster
E: trichomonas vaginalis

Q-79: Major Afferent Fibers to cerebellum is from:
A: Cerebral cortex
B: Midbrain
C: Medulla
C: Spinal cord
E: vestibular nuclei




Q-80: During Moderate Exercise pulmonary ventilation increase due to:
A: cerebral cortex
B: sensory proprioceptive receptor from joint & muscle
C: chemical stimulation
D: peripheral receptor stimulation
E:

Q-81: Gas Gangrene in limbs is caused by
A: clostridium biferenges
B: clostridium tetani
C: clostridium
D: clostridium botullinum
E: clostridium welchi

Q-82: Communication between Doctor & patient can be best improved by
A: Well decorated clinic
B: Active listening
C: logically Answering All Questions of patient
D: warm welcome of patient
E: doctor should be socially active

Q-83: virus Act by
A: free radical formation
B: Altering protein synthesis
C: Damaging cell membrane
D: damaging nucleus
E: damaging mitochondria

Q-84 Digastric triangle
A: formed by anterior & posterior belly of digastirc musle & mandible
B:
C:
D:
E:

Q-85: When fifth lumber vertebra is fused with first sacral vertebra, Term best to describe it.
A; Kyphosis
B: Lumbago
C: Lateralization
D: Sacralization
E: scoliosis





Q-87: Regarding Monocytes
A; It can transform into multinucleated cell in certain disease
B:
C:
D:
E:

Q-88: wound healing is delayed by
A: Immobilization
B: vitamin c
C; blood flow
D:
E:

Q-89: Most common hormone in Stress
A: Cortisoll
B: catecholamine
C: Dopamine
D: ACTH
E: serotonin

Q-90: Largest Representation in cerebral cortex
A: shoulder
B: knee
C: Elbow
D: thumb
E: trunk

Q-91: Which of following is not Epithelial Origin?
A: Adenocarcinoma
B: Papilloma
C: Fibroma
D: sarcoma
E:

Q-92:Baby was born With Blood Group with B negative & Mother was B negative & father B+ ,this child have Developed severe Erythroblastosis Fetalis ,Best Treatment of This baby is
A: Exchange transfusion with B+ blood group
B: Exchange transfusion with B negative blood Group
C: Exchange transfusion with AB blood group
D: Exchange transfusion with O blood Group
E: Exchange transfusion with A blood group









Q-93: A 30 year laborer doing work in hot Weather having severe Sweating, which ion will compensate most?
A: k+
B: Na+
C: cl-
D: HCO3
E: Mg+

Q-94: Passive Diffusion which is carried by carrier mediated protein is
A: Facilitated Diffusion
B: Active transport
C: Osmosis
D: pinocytosis
E: endocytosis

Q-95: Regarding cerebrospinal fluid.
A: may give rise false positive VDRL in neurosyphilis
B: Absorbed from choroid plexus
C: produced by Arachnoids granulation
D: have increase sugar in bacterial meningitis
E: pass immediately cisterna magna before subarachnoid space

Q-96: Regarding cerebrospinal fluid.
A: Produced by superior sagital sinus
B: Absorbed in Arachnoids granulation
C:
D: